A 39 year old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a persistent vaginal itch, vaginal discharge, and Dysuria. She has had these same symptoms several times over the past 2 years and each time has been diagnosed with Candida Vulvovaginitis. On physical examination, she has a thick, white vaginal discharge and significant vulvar and vaginal erythema. A potassium KOH smear shows pseudohyphae; the normal saline smear is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Coagulation studies
D. Screen for diabetes