Q-11. Vaginal smear in old lady shows
a) Atrophic cells on smear
b) Basal and para-basal cells
c) Superficial cells
d) Few intermediate cells seen
Answer: b and d
Explanation:
Basal and para-basal cells- Found predominantly in childhood until puberty, postpartum and after menopause
Intermediate cells- Predominant layer at birth, during pregnancy or at menopause
Superficial cells- Predominant layer in reproductive period and during pre-ovulatory
Q-12. True about Meig’s syndrome
a) Lymphatic dysplasia
b) Occur in 2-30 yrs age
c) Always with ascites & pleural effusion
d) No treatment required
Answer: c and d
Explanation:
Meig’s syndrome is defined as the triad of benign ovarian tumor with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumor.
Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumors seen in Meig’s syndrome.
Pseudo-Meig’s syndrome consists of pleural effusion, ascites, and benign tumors of the ovary other than fibromas.
These benign tumors include those of the fallopian tube or uterus and mature teratomas, struma ovarii, and ovarian leiomyomas.
Q-13. Treatment of choice of the pregnant lady with appendicitis is
a) Surgery at earliest
b) Abortion with appendectomy
c) Surgery after delivery
d) Continue pregnancy with medical Rx
Answer: Surgery at earliest
Explanation:
Appendicitis in pregnancy should be suspected when a pregnant woman complains of new abdominal pain.
Acute appendicitis is the most common general surgical problem encountered during pregnancy.
Treatment consists of laparotomy at earliest opportunity.
Q-14. OCPs causes
a) Hepatic adenoma
b) Cancer cervix
c) Endometrial Ca
d) Breast Ca
e) Hepatic vein thrombosis
Answer: a, b and e
Explanation:
Cholestatic Jaundice, Hepatic adenoma
CVA, MI
Venous thrombolytic disease
Cancer cervix
Q-15. Investigation done in recurrent abortion of first trimester
a) Karyotyping
b) SLE Ab
c) HIV
d) TORCH infection
Answer: a, b and d
Explanation:
Investigation done in recurrent abortion of first trimester:
Blood glucose
VDRL
Thyroid Function Test
ABO and Rh
Karyotyping
Autoimmune screening (Lupus anticoagulant and anti-cardiolipin antibodies)
USG to detect congenital malformation
Endo-cervical swab for Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and bacterial vaginosis
Hysteroscopy
Q-16. In second trimester abortion following procedures are done except
a) Mc Donald’s stitch
b) Shirodkar’s operation
c) Porander operation
d) Khann’s sling operation
e) Abdominal sling operation
Answer: c, d and e
Explanation:
Q-17. True about Ca cervix
a) 90% associated with HPV
b) Nulliparity is a risk factor
c) OCP is risk factor
d) Immuno-compromised patients
Answer: a, c and d
Explanation:
Risk Factors of Ca cervix:
Multiple sexual partners
Multi-parity
Immuno-compromised patients
Poor socio-economic status
Coitus before age of 18 years
Delivery of first baby before the age of 20 years
HPV (80-90 %)
OCPs and progesterone use for long term
Q-18. Clinical features of Turner’s syndrome are:
a) Secondary amenorrhea
b) Edema of hands and feet
c) XO genotype
d) Mental retardation common
e) Streak ovaries
Answer: b, c and e
Explanation:
Clinical features of Turner’s syndrome:
XO genotype
Short stature
A high arched palate
Streak ovaries and ovarian failure
Primary amenorrhea
Broad neck and a low or indistinct hairline
Lymphedema
Hypothyroidism
Cardiovascular malformations include hypo-plastic left heart, coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve.
Cubitus valgus
Q-19. Use of prostaglandins
a) Missed abortion
b) II trimester abortion
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) PPH
Answer: All
Explanation:
Use of prostaglandins:
Induction of abortion
Termination of labour
Cervical ripening
Management of atony PPH (Refractory case)
Medical management of tubal ectopic pregnancy
Q-20. True statement about diabetes in pregnancy
a) Macrosomia
b) IUGR
c) Congenital anomalies
d) Oligo-hydramnios
e) Placenta praevia
Answer: a and c
Explanation:
Fetal hazards in diabetic mother:
Fetal Macrosomia
Birth defects
Unexplained fetal loss
Birth injury (Brachial plexus)
Poly-Hydromnios