A 19-year-old woman comes to the office for a routine physical examination. She feels well and has no concerns. The patient has had 2 sexual partners in the past 3 months and uses condoms for contraception. She has no significant medical history, takes no medications, and has no drug allergies Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. Pelvic examination shows normal external genitalia. The cervix has no lesions, abnormal discharge, or friability. On bimanual examination,
the uterus is small and mobile and has no cervical motion or fundal tenderness. A cervical swab is sent for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae nucleic acid amplification testing. The tests return positive for chlamydia but negative for gonorrhea. The patient is still asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropri ate next step in management of this patient?
- A Azithromycin only
- Q B. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- Q C. Ceftriaxone only
- Q D. Reassurance and no treatment at this time
- Q E. Repeat test for confirmation