A 25-year-old man presents with a left testicular lump that he noticed on self examination.
Ultrasound revealed a solid round homogeneous low-reflectivity mass without calcification inside the tumour mass.
A CT scan of the thorax and abdomen and pelvis reveals left groin adenopathy but is otherwise normal.
Following orchidectomy histology confirmed a tumour made of relatively uniform cells with clear cytoplasm and lymphoid infiltrate.
Which is the most likely diagnosis ?
- Lymphogranuloma Venereum
- Tuberculous orchitis
- Mature teratoma