A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus gives birth to a term male infant. Immediately after birth, the infant is noted to be cyanotic and tachypneic. His hypoxemia quickly worsens over minutes, and he is taken to cardiac catheterization, where a balloon is guided to perforate the atrial septum. He is also given an infusion of prostaglandin E1. The infant’s hypoxia stabilizes, and he is later taken for definitive, corrective surgery. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of this infant’s hypoxemia?
- (A) Coarctation of the aorta
- (B) Concomitant ventricular septal defect
- © Delayed closure of the ductus arteriosus
- (D) Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral
- (E) Overriding aorta