A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 4-day history of increasingly severe left leg
pain and swelling of his left calf. He also has a 1-month history of increasingly severe upper midthoracic back pain.
During this time, he has had a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss despite no change in appetite. He has no history of major
medical illness. His only medication is ibuprofen. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 82 kg (180 lb); BMI is
25 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, lower extremity pulses are palpable bilaterally.
The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the thoracic spine shows no
abnormalities. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a 3-cm mass in the body of the pancreas; there are liver metastases
and encasement of the superior mesenteric artery. Ultrasonography of the left lower extremity shows a
femoropopliteal venous clot. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
(A) Carcinoid syndrome
(B) Hypercoagulability from advanced malignancy
© Multiple endocrine neoplasia
(D) Splenic artery aneurysm and embolic disease of the left lower extremity
(E) Superior mesenteric artery syndrome