AIIMS/ NEET-PG 2017: Surgery MCQs 221-240

Q-221. Carcino-embryonic antigens (CEA) is increased in all except
a) Lung cancer
b) Breast cancer
c) Colon Cancer
d) Osteogenic sarcoma

Answer: Osteogenic sarcoma
Explanation:
Raised Carcino-embryonic antigens (CEA):
Adenocarcinoma of
Colon
Pancreas
Lung
Breast
Ovary

Q-222. Tumor marker for primary hepato-cellular carcinoma are all except
a) Alpha feto protein
b) Alpha 2 macroglobulin
c) PIVKA-2
d) Neurotensin

Answer: Alpha 2 macroglobulin
Explanation:
Tumor marker for primary hepato-cellular carcinoma:
Alpha feto protein
PIVKA-2
Neurotensin

Q-223. True about branchial cyst is
a) Cysts are more common than sinuses
b) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
c) Causes dysphagia and hoarseness
d) Sinus should always be operated

Answer: Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
Explanation:
Second branchial remnants are most common.

Q-224. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with
a) Hypokalemic acidosis
b) Hypokalemic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemic acidosis
d) Hyperkalemic alkalosis

Answer: Hypokalemic alkalosis
Explanation:

Q-225. Commonest organ injured in blast injury is
a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas

Answer: Lung
Explanation:
The hollow organs containing gas or air are most readily damaged by blast waves.
The structure injured by the primary blast waves in order of prevalence:
Middle ear
Lungs
Bowel

Q-226. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy
a) Depends on organ laparotomy
b) Always midline incision
c) Always transverse
d) Depends upon type of injury

Answer: Always midline incision
Explanation:
Emergency abdominal exploration:
In adult- Long midline incision
Children below 6 years- Transverse

Q-227. A well differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from a follicular adenoma by
a) Hürthle cell change
b) Lining of tall columnar and cuboidal cells
c) Vascular invasion
d) Nuclear features

Answer: Vascular invasion
Explanation:
Differentiation between follicular carcinoma of thyroid and follicular adenoma is dependent on histological criteria of capsular and vascular invasion.

Q-228. True about branchial normal anomaly
a) Cysts are more common than sinuses
b) For sinuses surgery is not always indicated
c) Cysts present with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice
d) Most commonly due to 2nd branchial remnant

Answer: Most commonly due to 2nd branchial remnant
Explanation:

Q-229. Best prognostic factor for head injury is
a) Glasgow coma scale
b) Age
c) Mode of injury
d) CT findings

Answer: Glasgow coma scale
Explanation:

Q-230. Most common site of Morgagni hernia
a) Right anterior
b) Right posterior
c) Right anterior
d) Left posterior

Answer: Right anterior
Explanation:

Q-231. About congenital torticollis all are true except
a) Always associated with breech extraction
b) Spontaneous resolution in most cases
c) 2/3rd cases have palpable neck mass at birth
d) Uncorrected cases develop Plagiocephaly

Answer: Always associated with breech extraction
Explanation:

Q-232. Psammoma bodies seen in A/E
a) Follicular Ca of thyroid
b) Papillary Ca of thyroid
c) Serous cyst-adeno-carcinoma of ovary
d) Meningioma

Answer: Follicular Ca of thyroid
Explanation:
Psammoma bodies seen in:
Papillary Ca of thyroid
Serous cyst-adenoma of ovary
Meningioma
Papillary type of renal cell carcinoma
Pituitary adenoma
Appendiceal carcinoid

Q-233. Barrett’s esophagus shows
a) Intestinal dysplasia
b) Intestinal metaplasia
c) Squamous cell metaplasia
d) Columnar cell metaplasia

Answer: Intestinal metaplasia
Explanation:

Q-234. 50 yr old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The most sensitive screening test to pickup prostate cancer is
a) DRE
b) PSA
c) DRE+PSA
d) Endo-rectal coil MRI T1W and T2W images

Answer: DRE+PSA
Explanation:
DRE+PSA monitoring is the most effective screening protocol.

Q-235. Orchidopexy for cryptorchidism is done at the age of
a) 1to 2 years
b) 5 to 6 years
c) Puberty
d) Neonatal period

Answer: 1to 2 years (Most correct option)
Explanation:

Q-236. Which of the following colonic polyps has on risk for malignancy?
a) Juvenile polyps
b) Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-jeghers syndrome
c) Juvenile polyposis syndrome
d) Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome

Answer: Juvenile polyps
Explanation:

Q-237. Peutz jeghers polyps present most commonly in
a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Esophagus
d) Jejunum

Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:
Peutz jeghers syndrome:
Autosomal dominant syndrome
Multiple pigmented spots on lips and buccal mucosa
Multiple benign polyps throughout GI tract most frequently affecting the jejunum

Q-238. Renal calculi associated with proteus infection
a) Uric acid
b) Triple phosphate
c) Calcium oxalate
d) Xanthine

Answer: Triple phosphate
Explanation:

Q-239. Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen with
a) Ovarian Cancer
b) Stomach Cancer
c) Colon Cancer
d) Pancreatic Cancer

Answer: Stomach Cancer
Explanation:
A Sister Mary Joseph nodule is a metastatic lesion involving the umbilicus.
The most common primary source is an intra-abdominal adeno-carcinoma.
The commonest primary sites of Sister Mary Joseph nodules include stomach (most common), ovary, colon and pancreas.

Q-240. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta in a case of trauma which of the following is performed
a) Left medial visceral rotation
b) Right medial visceral rotation
c) Cranial visceral rotation
d) Caudal visceral rotation

Answer: Left medial visceral rotation
Explanation:
Left medial visceral rotation: Provides excellent exposure of
Aorta
Coeliac axis
Superior mesenteric artery
Left renal artery
Iliac artery
Right medial visceral rotation: Readily expose the
Vena cava
Right renal vessels
Iliac vein