food poisoning is so short lived that there are no old cases so no prevalence. But Sir, going by the formula
Prevalence = incidence × mean duration of illness
Prevalence can’t be zero…
Sir, please explain where I am wrong
Prevalence is old + new cases. At any given point, someone or the other might have food poisoning so prevalence can’t be ‘zero’ per se
i really coudn’t get your question… its simple… if the disease does not exist - its incidence and prevalence will be zero… whats the doubt here…?