Q-1. Spanish Windlass technique is a form of which type of execution?
a) Garroting
b) Mugging
c) Bansdola
d) Hanging
Answer: Garroting
Explanation:
Spanish Windlass, a form of garroting was practised in Spain.
An iron collar around the neck is tightened by a screw for strangling.
Q-2. True about aluminum phosphide poisoning, all except
a) Esophageal stricture
b) Sub-endocardial infarct
c) Release of phosphine gas
d) Inhibition of Cytochrome-A Oxidase
Answer: Inhibition of Cytochrome-A Oxidase
Explanation:
Aluminium phosphide (Celphos) poisoning:
Aluminium phosphide is a solid fumigant pesticide, insecticide and rodenticide.
On coming in contact with moisture, it liberates phosphine. Chemical reaction is accelerated by HCl in the stomach.
It preferentially inhibits Cytochrome-C oxidase.
Post mortem appearances:
Garlic like odor at mouth and nostril and in the gastric contents
Blood stained froth in the mouth and nostril
Mucous membrane of UGI congested
Centri-zonal hemorrhagic necrosis of the liver may be seen.
Treatment:
Gastric lavage with potassium permanganate
Oral activated charcoal to absorb phosphine
Liquid paraffin
Antacids
Magnesium sulphate to reduce organ toxicity
There is no specific antidote.
Q-3. Widmark’s formula is used for detection of –
a) Time since death
b) Quantity of alcohol in the body
c) Time since death
d) Infliction of injury
Answer: Quantity of alcohol in the body
Explanation:
Widmark devised a basic formula for calculating BAC (Blood Alcohol Concentration) in the body.
For blood analysis, the formula is a = cpr
a= Amount of alcohol consumes in grams
c= Concentration of alcohol in body in mg per kg
p= Body weight
r= Constant (0.6 for men and 0.5 for women)
For urine analysis, the formula is a =3/4 qpr
a= Amount of alcohol consumes in grams
q= Concentration of alcohol in urine in mg per kg
p= Body weight
r= Constant (0.6 for men and 0.5 for women)
Q-4. A rickshaw puller found injured on roadside. On examination, found to have tyre marks on his body. What is this kind of injury?
a) Patterned bruise
b) Imprint abrasion
c) Graze abrasion
d) Percolate bruise
Answer: Imprint abrasion
Explanation:
Impact or contact or imprint abrasions:
They are caused by impact with rough object, when the force is applied at or near a right angle to skin surface.
Important point:
Impact abrasions and pressure abrasions reproduce the pattern of the object causing it and called patterned abrasions.
Q-5. A patient admitted in the ICU after consuming some poison. He had features of broncho-dilatation, increase in temperature, constipation and tachycardia. The poison consumed is –
a) Mushroom
b) Atropine
c) Organo-phosphorus
d) Morphine
Answer: Atropine poisoning
Explanation:
Dhatura, Atropa belladonna and Atropine poisoning:
Initial signs and symptoms may include the following:
Dry mucous membranes and skin
Dysphagia and dysarthria
Photophobia, Blurred vision, Diplopia, Dilated pupil
Tachycardia
Urinary retention
Initial signs and symptoms may be followed by hyperthermia, confusion, agitation, combativeness, seizures, coma, and death.
AIIMS MAY 2010
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Heat rupture is characterized by
a) Irregular margin
b) Clotted blood
c) Regular margin
d) Clotted blood vessels
Answer: Clotted blood
Explanation:
Heat rupture:
In severe burning or charring skin contracts and heat ruptures occur, either before or after death.
Characteristic features of heat rupture:
Absence of bleeding in wound and surrounding tissues, since heat coagulates the blood in the vessels
Intact vessels and nerve in floor
Irregular margins
Absence of bruising or other signs of vital reaction in the margins
Q-2. Motorcyclist fracture among the following is
a) Ring facture
b) Sutural separation
c) Comminuted fracture of vault of skull
d) Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
Answer: Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
Explanation:
The fracture of base of skull dividing into anterior and posterior half called as motor cyclist fracture.
The fracture line runs across through the pituitary fossa and along the petrous temporal bones.
It may occur in many type road accidents or due to a very heavy impact on one side of the head.
Q-3. A child brought with suspected ingestion, presented with dry mouth, dilated pupil, difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin, the substance is:
a) Anti-cholinergic
b) Sympathetic
c) Cholinergic
d) Alpha-blocker
Answer: Anti-cholinergic poisoning
Explanation:
Anti-cholinergic poisoning:
Anti-cholinergic syndrome results from the inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission.
Clinical manifestations are caused by CNS effects, peripheral nervous system effects, or both.
Remember common signs and symptoms with the mnemonic, “red as a beet, dry as a bone, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, and hot as a hare.”
The mnemonic refers to the symptoms of flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status (AMS), and fever, respectively.
Q-4. Incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in:
a) Accidents
b) Suicides
c) Homicides
d) Postmortem artifact
Answer: Homicides
Explanation:
Incised wounds on nose, ears, and genitals are usually homicidal.
Q-5. Destructive power of bullet is determined by:
a) Weight of bullet
b) Shape of bullet
c) Size of bullet
d) Velocity of bullet
Answer: Velocity of bullet
Explanation:
A bullet’s ability to injure is directly related to it kinetic energy at the movement of impact.
Kinetic energy is directly proportional to mass of bullet and square of its velocity.
AIIMS NOV 2009
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Dried semen stains in clothes identified by
a) Spectrometry
b) UV
c) infra-red rays
d) Magnifying lens
Answer: UV
Explanation:
Semen is fluorescence due to the presence of molecules such as Flavin and Choline-conjugated proteins.
Under UV light, seminal stain shows bluish white color.
Q-2. Section 377 IPC deals with
a) Unnatural sex offences
b) Rape
c) Incest
d) Adultery
Answer: Unnatural sex offences
Explanation:
IPC Section 377: Unnatural offences
Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Q-3. Hatter’s shakes are seen in which poisoning
a) Mercury
b) Lead
c) Arsenic
d) Copper
Answer: Mercury
Explanation:
Mercury poisoning:
Metal fume fever – Occurs in the acute phase of mercury vapor toxicity and is manifested by fatigue, weakness, fever, chills, dizziness, headache, abdominal cramping, dyspnea, dysuria, and ejaculatory pain.
Acrodynia – Also known as pink disease and considered to be a mercury allergy; presents with erythema of the palms and soles, edema of the hands and feet.
Danbury tremors and Hatter’s or glass blower’s shake
Mercuria lentis: Discoloration of the capsule of lens
Erethism – A constellation of irritability, excitability, anxiety, insomnia, and social withdrawal
The classic triad found in chronic toxicity is tremors, gingivitis, and erethism.
Additional findings may include headache, visual disturbance (e.g., tunnel vision), peripheral neuropathy, salivation, insomnia, and ataxia.
Hearing loss and visual field impairments more often occur with organic poisoning, as in Minamata disease.
Q-4. Caustic poison corrodes mucosa because of
a) Hygroscopic nature
b) Glue like action
c) Affinity for mucosa
d) Programmed to stick
Answer: Hygroscopic nature
Explanation:
A corrosive poison fixes, destroys and erodes the surface with which it comes in contact.
They act by extracting water (Hygroscopic) from tissues and coagulate cellular proteins.
Q-5. Antemortem burn differ from postmortem burn by all except
a) Pus in vesicle
b) Vesicle with hyperemic base
c) Vesicle containing air
d) Inflammatory red line
Answer: Vesicle containing air
Explanation:
Antemortem burn:
Line of redness- present
Vesicles- Albuminous fluid and chloride
Infection-Pus and sloughing
Soot in upper respiratory tract
Carboxy-hemoglobin in blood
Q-6. A teacher slapped a 6th standard student after which she suffered from 25 % hearing loss in left ear. This was corrected after a surgery. Which type of injury is this?
a) Simple
b) Grievous
c) Dangerous
d) Serious
Answer: Grievous
Explanation:
Section 320 of IPC defines Grievous Hurt as:
Emasculation
Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear
Privation of any member or a joint
Destruction or permanent impairing of powers of any member or joint
Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be, during the space of twenty days, in severe body pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits.
AIIMS MAY 2009
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Minor trauma leads to large bruise at which of these sites?
a) Palms
b) Soles
c) Skull
d) Face
Answer: Face
Explanation:
If the part is vascular and loose, such as face, vulva, scrotum, a slight degree of violence may cause a large bruise as there is sufficient space for blood to accumulate.
Q-2. Formication and delusion of persecution occurs in
a) Cocaine
b) Amphetamine
c) Cannabis
d) Morphine
Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:
Cocaine:
Typical symptoms of sufferers include paranoid delusions that they are being followed and that their drug use is being watched accompanied by hallucinations that support the delusional beliefs. Delusional parasitosis with formication (“cocaine bugs”) is also a fairly common symptom.
Q-3. Incisional wound on genitalia is seen commonly in
a) Homicidal
b) Suicidal
c) Accidental
d) Postmortem artifact
Answer: Homicidal
Explanation:
Incised wounds on nose, ears, and genitals are usually homicidal.
Q-4. Destructive power of bullet is determined by
a) Weight of bullet
b) Shape of bullet
c) Size of bullet
d) Velocity of bullet
Answer: Velocity of bullet
Explanation:
A bullet’s ability to injure is directly related to it kinetic energy at the movement of impact.
Kinetic energy is directly proportional to mass of bullet and square of its velocity.
Q-5. A man is working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odor in breath and transverse lines on nails. Most likely the person is having
a) Arsenic poisoning
b) Lead poisoning
c) Hg poisoning
d) Cadmium poisoning
Answer: Arsenic poisoning
Explanation:
Chronic arsenic poisoning:
Raindrop pattern of skin pigmentation on the trunk and extremities
Arsenical hyperkeratosis on the palms and the plantar aspect of the feet
Mees’ lines: Typically white bands traversing the width of the nail
Weakness
Anemia
Peripheral neuropathy
Hepatomegaly with portal zone fibrosis (with/without portal hypertension),
Chronic lung disease
Peripheral vascular disease
Cancers: Bowen’s disease, Squamous cell carcinoma, Basal cell carcinoma
Q-6. Antemortem and post mortem wounds could be differentiated by all except:
a) Everted margins
b) Swollen edge
c) Sharp edge
d) Blood clots in surrounding tissue
Answer: Sharp edge
Explanation:
Antemortem wounds:
Edges: Swollen, everted, retracted and wound gap
Hemorrhage: Abundant and usually arterial
Spurting: Present
Vital reaction: Present
Enzyme histochemistry: Increased enzyme activity
AIIMS NOV 2008
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. What is falanga?
a) Beating of soles with blunt object
b) Beating of ear with both palms
c) Beating on the abdomen
d) Suspension by wrist
Answer: Beating of soles with blunt object
Explanation:
Physical torture: Beatings
Falanga or falaka: To the soles of the feet
El telefone: With the palms on both the ears simultaneously
El quirofano: On the abdomen, while lying on a table with the upper half of the body unsupported
Q-2. Hydrocution is
a) Electrocution in water
b) Dry drowning
c) Drowning in cold water
d) Post mortem immersion
Answer: Drowning in cold water
Explanation:
Immersion syndrome or Hydrocution:
Death results from cardiac arrest due to vagal inhibition from cold water stimulating skin, cold water striking epigastrium and cold water entering ear drum, pharynx, larynx.
Q-3. Study of death in all its aspects is known as
a) Trichology
b) Ornithology
c) Odontology
d) Thanatology
Answer: Thanatology
Explanation:
Thanatology is the scientific study of death.
It investigates the mechanisms and forensic aspects of death, such as bodily changes that accompany death and the post-mortem period, as well as wider social aspects related to death.
Q-4. Constituents of a typical embalming solution are all except
a) Phenol
b) Glycerin
c) Formalin
d) Ethanol
Answer: Phenol
Explanation:
A typical embalming solution:
Formalin
Sodium borate
Sodium citrate
Glycerine
Sodium chloride
Eosin
Soluble wintergreen
Water
Q-5. A man is working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odor in breath and transverse lines on nails. Most likely the person is having
a) Arsenic poisoning
b) Lead poisoning
c) Hg poisoning
d) Cadmium poisoning
Answer: Arsenic poisoning
Explanation:
Chronic arsenic poisoning:
Raindrop pattern of skin pigmentation on the trunk and extremities
Arsenical hyperkeratosis on the palms and the plantar aspect of the feet
Mees’ lines: Typically white bands traversing the width of the nail
Weakness
Anemia
Peripheral neuropathy
Hepatomegaly with portal zone fibrosis (with/without portal hypertension),
Chronic lung disease
Peripheral vascular disease
Cancers: Bowen’s disease, Squamous cell carcinoma, Basal cell carcinoma
AIIMS MAY 2008
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Sweating is not present in
a) Heat syncope
b) Heat cramps
c) Heat stroke
d) Heat fatigue
Answer: Heat stroke
Explanation:
Heat stroke is the most serious form of heat injury and is a medical emergency.
Heat stroke results from prolonged exposure to high temperatures usually in combination with dehydration which leads to failure of the body’s temperature control system.
The hallmark symptom of heat stroke is a core body temperature above 105 degrees Fahrenheit. But fainting may be the first sign.
Other symptoms may include:
Lack of sweating despite the heat; Red, hot and dry skin
Muscle weakness or cramps
Nausea and vomiting
Rapid heartbeat, which may be either strong or weak
Rapid, shallow breathing
Throbbing headache, Dizziness and light-headedness, Behavioral changes (Confusion, disorientation, or staggering), Seizures, Unconsciousness
Q-2. Finger print bureau was first established in
a) India
b) England
c) USA
d) France
Answer: India
Explanation:
A Fingerprint Bureau was established in Calcutta (Kolkata), India, in 1897, after the Council of the Governor General approved a committee report that fingerprints should be used for the classification of criminal records.
Azizul Haque and Hem Chandra Bose were Indian fingerprint experts who have been credited with the primary development of a fingerprint classification system eventually named after their supervisor, Sir Edward Richard Henry.
Q-3. Corpus delicti means
a) Essence of crime
b) Inquest into death
c) Post mortem examination
d) Death by asphyxia
Answer: Essence of crime
Explanation:
Corpus delicti (The body of offence; the essence of crime) means the fact of any criminal offence, e.g. murder.
The main part of corpus delicti is the establishment of identity of dead body, and infliction of violence in particular way, at a particular time and place, by the person or persons charged with the crime and none other.
Q-4. Last organ to be dissected during autopsy in asphyxial death is
a) Neck
b) Head
c) Abdomen
d) Thorax
Answer: Neck
Explanation:
Neck and its structures should be examined after removal of brain and chest organs in asphyxia death.
It allows blood to drain from the neck blood vessels. Such draining provides a clean bloodless field for the study of neck structures.
Q-5. Irresistible sexual desire in male known as
a) Sadism
b) Tribadism
c) Satyriasis
d) Nymphomania
Answer: Satyriasis
Explanation:
Hyper-sexuality is extremely frequent or suddenly increased sexual urges or sexual activity.
The International Classification of Diseases of the World Health Organization includes “Excessive Sexual Drive” which is divided into satyriasis for males and nymphomania for females and “Excessive Masturbation”.
AIIMS NOV 2007
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Telefona is
a) Beating the sole of feet
b) Pulling of hair
c) Beating of ears
d) Tying a plastic bag over head
Answer: Beating of ears
Explanation:
Physical torture: Beatings
Falanga or falaka: To the soles of the feet
El telefone: With the palms on both the ears simultaneously
El quirofano: On the abdomen, while lying on a table with the upper half of the body unsupported
Q-2. Most common site of primary impact injury to adult pedestrians in a motor vehicle accident is-
a) Head
b) Chest
c) Legs
d) Abdomen
Answer: Legs
Explanation:
Most adult vehicle collisions occur when the center of gravity of adult is above the upper front edge (bumper) of the oncoming vehicle, whereas in pediatric pedestrian collisions the center of gravity of child is often below the bumper.
In adult collisions, the front bumper strikes the lower leg region. The legs are accelerated in the direction of vehicle travel, while the upper body and head are brought into contact with the hood and/or windshield.
Most common injuries seen in children, involve the head and neck, with musculoskeletal injuries the second most common.
In contrast, most common injuries seen among adults, musculoskeletal injuries are more common than head and neck injuries.
Q-3. In tandem bullet, the number of bullet/bullets coming out of the gun is/are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Tandem Bullet: The phenomenon is observed when a bullet gets lodged inside the barrel and receives a kick on its base by the nose of another bullet fired subsequently.
The impact results in the transfer of kinetic energy. The striking bullet loses kinetic energy whereas the lodged bullet gains kinetic energy.
Q-4. In autopsy, preservative used for vitreous is
a) Fluoride
b) HCL
C) Phenol
d) Xylol
Answer: Fluoride
Explanation:
Vitreous fluid may be procured by inserting an 18- or 20-gauge needle attached to a 10-mL syringe into the globe of the eye.
The insertion is best at the lateral canthus, introducing the end of the needle to the center of the globe.
Approximately 2-5 mL of fluid can be aspirated from each eye; even 1 mL can be procured from a newborn. The vitreous should be placed in a sterile tube.
If alcohol or drug analysis is to be performed, then sodium fluoride preservative should be in the tube.
Q-5. Which of these is not a grievous injury?
a) Loss of teeth
b) Loss of hearing of one ear
c) Permanent disfiguration of face
d) Abrasion on face
Answer: Abrasion on face
Explanation:
Section 320 of IPC defines Grievous Hurt as:
Emasculation
Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear
Privation of any member or a joint
Destruction or permanent impairing of powers of any member or joint
Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be, during the space of twenty days, in severe body pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits.
Q-6. Last organ to be dissected during autopsy in asphyxial death is
a) Neck
b) Head
c) Abdomen
d) Thorax
Answer: Neck
Explanation:
Neck and its structures should be examined after removal of brain and chest organs in asphyxia death.
It allows blood to drain from the neck blood vessels. Such draining provides a clean bloodless field for the study of neck structures.
AIIMS MAY 2007
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Spalding’s sign seen in:
a) Drowning
b) Maceration
c) Hanging
d) Adipocere
Answer: Maceration
Explanation:
The Spalding sign refers the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. Spalding`s sign is an indicator of fetal death.
Signs of dead-birth child:
Rigor mortis at delivery
Maceration and Spalding sign
Mummification
Sonographic features of fetal death:
Absent fetal heart beat
Absent fetal movements
Occasional findings:
Overlapping of skull bones (Spalding sign)
Gross distortion of fetal anatomy (maceration)
Soft tissue edema: skin > 5 mm
Uncommon findings:
Thrombus in fetal heart
Gas shadow in fetal heart (Robert’s sign)
Q-2. Which of The following is not a dialyzable poison?
a) Ethylene glycol
b) Copper sulfate
c) Barbiturate
d) Methyl Alcohol
Answer: Copper sulfate
Explanation:
Hemo-dialysis is mandatory in following poisoning:
Ethylene glycol
Methanol
Salicylates
Barbiturates
Boric acid
Thiocyanates
Glutethemide
Q-3. Hemo-perfusion with charcoal is used in treatment of poisoning with:
a) Ethylene glycol
b) Lithium
c) Methanol
d) Barbiturates
Answer: Barbiturates
Explanation:
Hemo-perfusion is renal replacement therapy using an adsorbent cartridge to remove circulating toxic agents.
Hemo-perfusion may be considered for agents with high volumes of distribution if:
Agent is not cleared by liver or kidneys, or clearance is impaired by organ failure
Agent is not removed by dialysis or hemo-filtration
Agent causes significant illness
Indications:
Anti-epileptic drugs (e.g. Carbamazepine, Valproate, Phenytoin, Barbiturates)
Theophylline
Digitalis
Acetaminophen
Carbon tetrachloride
Q-4. Shape of nulliparous cervical canal is
a) Circular
b) Transverse
c) Spherical
d) Longitudinal
Answer: Transverse
Explanation:
External os: Circular in nulliparous and transverse or slit like in multiparous women.
Cervical canal: Transverse in nulliparous women
Q-5. Which is not an aryl phosphate?
a) Parathion
b) TIK 20
c) Malathion
d) Paraoxon
Answer: Malathion
Explanation:
Aryl phosphate:
Parathion
TIK 20 (Diazinon)
Paraxon
Methyl parathion
Alkyl phosphate: Malathion
AIIMS NOV 2006
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. In judicial hanging, the position of the knot on the neck is
a) At the nape of the neck
b) Under the chin
c) Lateral aspect of neck
d) Choice of hangman
Answer: Lateral aspect of neck
Explanation:
Though sub-mental knot is thought to be more effective and ensures a quicker death, side of neck under the angle of jaw (Sub-aural knot) on the left is the preferred position in India for judicial hanging.
Judicial hanging causes fracture dislocation usually at the level of the second and third or third and fourth cervical vertebrae.
Bilateral fractures of either the pedicles or laminae of the arch of the second, third or fourth cervical vertebrae occur.
Q-2. Brain sample is not preserved in which poisoning?
a) Organo-phosphorus poisoning
b) Heavy metal poisoning
c) Alkaloid poisoning
d) Volatile toxins
Answer: Heavy metal poisoning
Explanation:
Brain may be preserved in:
Alkaloids, Opiates, Barbiturates
Organo-phosphorus
CO
Cyanides
Volatile organic poisons
Strychnine
Q-3. Mode of action of abortion sticks in “criminal abortion” is
a) Separation of placenta
b) Uterine contraction
c) Necrosis and infection of uterine walls
d) Nerve stimulation of uterus
Answer: Uterine contraction
Explanation:
Abortion sticks in criminal abortion:
This is a thin wood or bamboos stick wrapped round at one end with cotton wool or a piece of cloth and soaked with juice of marking nut, calotropis, asafoetida etc.
It is introduced into vagina or os of uterus by dhais and retained their till uterine contractions begin.
Q-4. Malaria-like fever and chills are present in which of poisoning?
a) Mercury
b) Zinc
c) Red phosphorus
d) Arsenic
Answer: Zinc
Explanation:
Metal fume fever is an acute self-limited illness induced most commonly by inhalation of zinc oxide fumes.
The affected individual characteristically experiences the rapid onset of intense shaking chills, fever, and body aches a few hours after exposure, and symptoms dissipate spontaneously.
Q-5. Sexual asphyxia is associated with which of the following sexual behavior?
a) Masochism
b) Fetishism
c) Voyeurism
d) Sadism
Answer: Masochism
Explanation:
Hypoxyphilia is a paraphilia which is a sub-category of sexual masochism.
It is also known by terms such as autoerotic or sexual asphyxia.
This potentially lethal sexual practice refers to sexual arousal that is produced while reducing the oxygen supply to the brain.
AIIMS MAY 2006
Crack PGMEE
Q-1. Priapism occurs in:
a) Snakebite
b) Ratti poisoning
c) Cantharide poisoning
d) Arsenic poisoning
Answer: Cantharide poisoning
Explanation:
Spanish fly or Cantharides or Blister beetle poisoning:
Active principle of its dried powder is cantharidin.
Symptoms:
Burning sensation in the mouth, throat, esophagus, stomach, and abdomen
Hematemesis, Bloody diarrhoea, Nephro-toxicity
Priapism
Convulsion, coma and death
Q-2. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson method of age estimation-
a) Attrition
b) Secondary dentin deposition
c) Transparency of root
d) Cementum apposition
Answer: Transparency of root
Explanation:
Gustafson’s method for age determination from teeth is based on the evaluation of ground sections of teeth.
Six age-associated parameters are attrition, periodontosis, secondary dentin deposition, root translucency, cementum apposition and root re-sorption.
Two of these changes, transparency of radicular dentin and secondary dentin, have the highest correlation with age.
Q-3. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in cases of:
a) Eczema
b) Scalds
c) Scabies
d) Leprosy
Answer: Leprosy
Explanation:
Conditions associated with permanent impairment of finger print pattern:
Leprosy
Electrical injury
Radiation injury
Q-4. ‘Fracture-ala signature’ is:
a) Gutter fracture
b) Depressed fracture
c) Ring fracture
d) Sutural separation
Answer: Depressed fracture
Explanation:
Fracture-a-la-signature or signature fracture is another term used to describe a depressed skull fracture.
The size and shape of a depressed skull fracture may give information on the type of weapon used.
Q-5. When a surgeon wants to send the autopsy specimen for virological examination, it should be preserved in:
a) 50% glycerine
b) 10% formalin
c) Rectified spirit
d) Saturated solution of common salt
Answer: 50% glycerine
Explanation:
The different virological transport media that can be used are 50% phosphate buffered glycerine saline and phosphate buffer saline (pH 7.2-7.4).
For Histopathology studies, tissues should be preserved in 10% formalin. The volume of formalin used should be approximately 10 times the volume of material.
Q-6. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green color. The most likely cause of death is by poisoning due to:
a) Hydrocyanic acid
b) Hydrogen sulfide
c) Oleander
d) Sodium nitrite
Answer: Hydrogen sulfide
Explanation:
Color of postmortem hypostasis:
Aniline—————–Deep blue
Opiate—————–Black
Hydrogen sulfide—Bluish green
Nitrites—————Red brown
Phosphorus———Dark brown
CO———————Bright cherry red
Cyanide————–Pink
Chlorates————Chocolate brown
Q-7. The ideal place to record temperature in dead body is from:
a) Axilla
b) Groin
c) Rectum
d) Mouth
Answer: Rectum
Explanation:
Rectum is the ideal place to record body temperature except in cases of sodomy.
Other suitable sites are external auditory canal, nasal passages or by inserting a thermometer into the peritoneal cavity by a small opening and keeping it in contact with the inferior surface of the liver.