A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia presents to the physician with amenorrhea and a milky discharge from both nipples. A pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory results show an increased serum prolactin level, a decreased serum gonadotropin level, and a normal thyroid stimulating hormone level. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?
(A) Amantadine
(B) Bromocriptine
© Cabergoline
(D) Chlorpromazine
(E) Clozapine
Ans:(D) Chlorpromazine