Which of the following options would be the most appropriate management of this patient’s condition?

A 30-year-old man presented to the clinic complaining of involuntary movements of his tongue and mouth. He was previously started on haloperidol for schizophrenia a year ago and claims to have remained compliant. His relatives state that he is on no other medication and had no loss of consciousness during his treatment. On examination, the patient is afebrile, alert, and rational. Kernig’s sign is negative.

Which of the following options would be the most appropriate management of this patient’s condition?

  • A. Discontinue Haloperidol and start on Olanzapine + Benzhexol
  • B. Increase the Haloperidol dose
  • C. Discontinue Haloperidol and refer to Neurology
  • D. Add Chlopromazine
  • E. Add Diazepam

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