AIIMS/ NEET-PG 2017: Gynae and Obs MCQ 81-90

Q-81. True about labour pain
a) Pain at regular internal
b) Mucus with blood tinge
c) Pain relieves after sedation
d) Back & lower abdominal no discomfort
e) No cervical dilation

Answer: a, b and c
Explanation:
Labour pain:
Painful uterine contractions at regular interval
Felt in front abdomen or radiating towards thigh
Contraction with increasing intensity and duration
Show- Expulsion of cervical mucus plug mixed with blood
Progressive effacement and dilatation of cervix
Sedative and analgesic are used for control of labour pain

Q-82. Management of third stage labour includes
a) Methergine after shoulder delivery
b) Early cord clamp
c) Uterine massage
d) Oxytocin injection
e) Controlled cord traction

Answer: All
Explanation:
Management of third stage labour includes:
Uterine massage and make it hard
Methergine after shoulder delivery
IV drip and bladder catheterization
Early cord clamp
Controlled cord traction
Oxytocin injection

Q-83. Indications of outlet forcep are
a) Head in introitus
b) Fetal skull is on perineum
c) Sagital suture in AP diameter
d) Adequate pelvis
e) >45 degree rotation

Answer: a, b, c and d
Explanation:
Indications of outlet forcep:
Head in introitus
Fetal skull at level of pelvic floor
Fetal skull is on perineum
Sagital suture in AP diameter
Rotation is less than 45 degree
Important point:
A variety of low forcep

Q-84. External cephalic version is C/I in
a) Twin
b) Previous transverse uterine scar
c) Placenta praevia
d) Multiparous women

Answer: a, b and c
Explanation:
Absolute contraindications to external cephalic version:
Ante-partum hemorrhage
Multiple gestations
Fetal distress
Another indication for cesarean delivery
Ruptured membrane
Severe fetal abnormalities
Hyper-extended fetal head

Q-85. Ideal candidate for vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC)
a) Not more than 1 previous transverse LSCS
b) >4 kg birth weight
c) Increased maternal age (>40)
d) Preterm delivery

Answer: a and d
Explanation:
Ideal candidate for vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC):
Preterm delivery
Not more than 1 previous transverse LSCS

Q-86. which of the following drug (s) is/are not tocolytic agent?
a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Dexamethasone
c) Ritodrin
d) Nifedipine
e) Progesterone

Answer: b
Explanation:
Tocolytic agents:
Beta agonist- Ritodrine
Calcium channel blocker- Nifedipine
PG synthesis inhibitors- Indomethacin
Magnesium sulphate
Oxytocin antagonist
Miscellaneous drugs- Glyceryl trinitrate, Progesterone, Halothane

Q-87. Feature of pre-clampsia includes all except
a) B.P >140/90 after 20 wk
b) Epigastric pain
c) Vomiting
d) Visual disturbance & heartburn
e) Proteinuria

Answer: c
Explanation:
Features of preeclampsia:
Hypertension
Proteinuria
Edema
In addition of classical findings, women with preeclampsia may complain of
Scotomata
Blurred vision
Pain in epigastrium or right upper quadrant
Symptoms of thrombocytopenia

Q-88. Methods of female sterilization are
a) Laparoscopic ligation
b) Irving method
c) Shirodkar’s procedure
d) Uchida method
e) Mini-laparotomy

Answer: c
Explanation:
Methods of female sterilization:
Hysteroscopy
Laparoscopy
Vaginal route
Mini-laparotomy:
Pomeroy
Uchida method
Laparotomy:
Pomeroy
Irving method
Uchida method

Q-89. DUB treatment includes
a) NSAIDS
b) Progesterone
c) Tranexamic acid
d) Low dose OCP
e) Conjugated equinous estrogen

Answer: All
Explanation:
DUB treatment:
Hormones:
Low dose OCP
Norethisterone acetate
Medroxy-progesterone acetate
Mifepristone (RU 486)
Danazole
Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors:
Mefenamic acid
Anti-fibrinolytic Agent:
Tranexamic acid
Ethamsylate

Q-90. Risk factor for carcinoma cervix includes
a) Monogamy
b) Late age at first intercourse
c) Immuno-suppression
d) HPV
e) Cigarette smoking

Answer: c, d and e
Explanation:
Risk factors for ca cervix:
Multiple sexual partners
Multiple pregnancies
Low socioeconomic condition/ Poor personal hygiene
Smoking and drug abuse
HPV, HSV, HIV infections
Early menarche
Coitus bore age of 18 years
Immuno-suppression