A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2 para O aborta 1, at 8 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of light
vaginal spotting and mild abdominal cramping. She has not passed large clots or had heavy bleeding. The patient has infertility
issues and this pregnancy resulted from an ovulation induction. Her only prior pregnancy was an ectopic pregnancy 10 years ago that
was treated with methotrexate. She has no other medical conditions. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use
tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 116/64 mm Hg and pulse is 76/min. BIVII is 26 kg/m2 Speculum examination
shows a closed cervix and scant blood in the vagina Bimanual examination reveals a 10-week-sized nontender uterus and no
adnexal masses or tenderness. Two 8-week intrauterine gestations with normal heartbeats are seen on ultrasound. There is a single
placenta and no dividing intertwin membrane. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- QA Dichorionic diamniotic twins
- 0 B. Heterotopic pregnancy
- 0 C. Inevitable abortion
- 0 D. Monochorionic diamniotic twins
- 0 E. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
0 voters
QA Dichorionic diamniotic twins
0 B. Heterotopic pregnancy
0 C. Inevitable abortion
0 D. Monochorionic diamniotic twins
0 E. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins