A 76 year old man suddenly collapsed and died. At post mortem exam, a retroperitoneal
hematoma due to ruptured aortic aneurysm was noted. What is the most likely underlying cause
of the aortic aneurysm?
- a. Atheroma
- b. Cystic medial necrosis
- c. Dissecting aneurysm
- d. Polyarteritis nodosa
- e. Syphilis
0 voters
Ans. The key is A. Atheroma. [Any condition that causes the walls of the arteries to weaken can lead to
an aneurysm. Atherosclerosis is the leading cause. Others are high blood pressure, and smoking. Deep
wounds, injuries, or infections can also cause blood vessels to bulge].
52. A 33 year old male came to the hospital with complaint of occasional left sided chest pain that
lasts <30mins, following exercise, which relieves upon taking rest. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
- a. Unstable angina
- b. Decubitus angina
- c. Stable angina
- d. Coronary spasm
- e. MI
0 voters
Ans. The key is C. Stable angina. [Stable angina is chest pain or discomfort that most often occurs with
activity or emotional stress and lasts for <30 minutes, relieved by rest or nitroglycerine. Symptoms of
angina occur when blood supply to heart muscle is reduced. This happens when the coronary arteries
are narrowed or blocked by atherosclerosis or by a blood clot]