A 78-year-old woman is admitted with heart failure

A 78-year-old woman is admitted with heart failure. The underlying cause is determined to be aortic stenosis. Which sign is most likely to be present?

  1. Pleural effusion on chest x-ray
  2. Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP)
  3. Bilateral pedal oedema
  4. Bibasal crepitations
  5. Atrial fibrillation

View Explanation

Aortic stenosis will first result in left ventricular failure as a result of increased ventricular pressure as the ventricle tries to pump blood across a narrowed valve. Initially the pressure load will cause a backlog of blood into the lungs, resulting in pulmonary oedema – the first sign of which will be bibasal crepitations (D) before enough fluid accumulates as pleural effusions visible on chest x-ray (A). Earlier signs of pulmonary oedema include upper lobe blood diversion and Kerley B lines as fluid infiltrates the interstitium. If the backlog continues back into the right heart, eventually signs of right-sided heart failure will be evident including raised JVP (B) and bilateral pedal oedema ©. Atrial fibrillation (E) may coexist with aortic stenosis, however it is more commonly associated as a result of mitral stenosis as the enlarged atrium disrupts the normal electrical pathways.