Online Test Series 40

[MedMRI]

1. Question

Toxins are implicated as the major pathogenetic mechanism in all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas except?

1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
3. Shigella sp.
4. Vibrio cholerae 

2. Question

A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except :

1. CFA-l
2. CS—2
3. P-Pili
4. K 88 

3. Question

Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of medullary carcinoma of thyroid?

1. BRCA 1 gene
2. RET protooncogene
3. FAP gene
4. Rb gene 

4. Question

Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis

1. Shiga toxin
2. Cholera toxin
3. LT of enterotoxigenic E.coli
4. Pertussis toxin 

5. Question

Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:

1. 46, XXY
2. 46, XY
3. 45, XYY
4. 46, X 

6. Question

The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is:

1. Laminin
2. Fibronectin
3. Collagen type 4
4. Heparan sulphate 

7. Question

Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in :

1. DNA polymerase III
2. DNA exonuclease
3. DNA ligase
4. DNA polymerase I 

8. Question

A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal:

1. Edema in between normal myofibres
2. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue
3. Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
4. lnliltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages 

9. Question

To which of the following events is ‘good’ outcome in neuroblastoma associated :

1. Diploidy
2. N—myc amplification
3. Trk A expression
4. Chromosome / p depletion 

10. Question

To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong?

1. Cytokines
2. Kinin system
3. Arachidonic acid metabolite
4. Chemokines 

11. Question

Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?

1. P-53
2. C-myc
3. bcl-2
4. bax 

12. Question

Serum C3 is persistently low in the following?

1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
2. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
3. Lupus nephritis
4. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis 

13. Question

A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 — biphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6 — bi-phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:

1. Level of fructose 1,6—biphosphate is higher than normal
2. Level of fructose 1,6 — biphosphate is lower than normal
3. Less ATP is generated
4. Less pyruvate is formed 

14. Question

Regarding gas gangrene one of the following is correct:

1. It is due to Clostridium Botulinum infection
2. Clostridial species are gram—negative spore forming anaerobes
3. Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments
4. The clinical featues are due to the release of protein endotoxin 

15. Question

Kinky hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degenration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother’s brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the possible mode of inheritence in her family?

1. X-linked dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. Autosomal dominant
4. X-linked recessive 

16. Question

All of the following are the good prognostic for Hodgkin’s disease except:

1. Absolute lymphocyte count < 600/mm3
2. Age < 45 yrs
3. WBC count < 15000/mm3
4. Haemoglobin > 10 gm/dl 

17. Question

A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E.coli is likely to be the causative agent :

1. O 107:H7
2. O 159:H7
3. O l57:H7
4. O 55:H7 

18. Question

A farmer presenting with fever off-and on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this state except:

1. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test
2. Standard Agglutination test
3. Coomb‘ s test
4. Complement fixation test 

19. Question

All of the following statements about hairy cell leukaemia are true except:

1. Splenomegaly is conspicuous
2. The cells express CD25 consistently
3. Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
4. Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase 

20. Question

Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

1. Trisomy 8
2. 20q -
3. 5q -
4. Monosomy 7 

21. Question

Which of the following is an automsomal dominant metabolic disorder?

1. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
2. Phenyl ketouuria
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Familial hyper cholesterolemia 

22. Question

Which of the following is a procoagulation protein?

1. Thrombomodulin
2. Thrombin
3. Protein C
4. Protein S 

23. Question

Which of the following statements is true about hapten?

1. It has no association with MHC
2. It is a T-independent Antigen
3. It needs carrier to induce immune response
4. It induces brisk immune response 

24. Question

The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because:

1. Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
2. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
3. Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx
4. Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma 

25. Question

A 70 year old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years presents with a 6 months history of a large, fungating, soft papillary lesion in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into the mandible. Lymph nodes are not palpable. 2 biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis infiltrating the subjacent tissues. The most likely diagnosis is :

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Squamous cell papilloma
3. Verrucous carcinoma
4. Malignant mixed tumour 

26. Question

All of the following are associated with low complement levels except:

1. Mesangio capillary glomerulonepltritis
2. Lupus nephritis
3. Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
4. Post—infections glomerulonephritis 

27. Question

A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean’s reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is :

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. Clostridium tetani
4. Actinamyces sp 

28. Question

A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram—positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:

1. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
2. Listera monocytogenes
3. Corynebacterium sp.
4. Enterococcus sp. 

29. Question

A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be:

1. Blood agar with X & V factors
2. Thayer Martin Medium
3. Chocolate agar with IsoVitaleX
4. Teilurite blood agar 

30. Question

The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:

1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. Direct fluorescent antibody test
3. Enzyme immunoassay
4. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells