A 44 year-old man attends with a painful swelling in his right groin. It has been present intermittently for the past six months since moving house. He also complains of abdominal pain and nausea and has vomited once today. On examination, he has a tender swelling in his right groin which is irreducible.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate course of action for this patient? Select ONE option only.
a. Referral to surgical outpatient clinic
b. Referral for ultrasound examination
c. Reassure
d. Prescribe analgesia
e. Emergency admission