“While all antidepressants have the potential to induce a manic switch in susceptible patients, the rate is slightly higher for tricyclic antidepressants than for SSRIs or SNRIs such as fluoxetine or sertraline, respectively”
Is this statement true, sir? And, if in a given case scenario of maniac switch and if a TCA and SSRI are both given in the options, should we pick TCA as answer over SSRI?
Potential to cause antidepressant induced switch is TCAs > venlafaxine (?other SNRIs) > SSRIs > Bupropion
So, TCAs maximum and Bupopion minimum chances to cause switch